Definitions / MCQs on Water Management / Agri Engineering (OLD BUT IMPORTANT)

DEFINITIONS

Q No. 1: What is Tractor?
Tractor is a device which develops traction for the purpose of pulling loads / implements. Traction is developed under rear wheels when powered by an engine.

Q No. 2: What do you mean by farm mechanization?
It is the process of using agricultural machinery to mechanize the work of agriculture, massively increasing farm output and farm worker productivity.
Or
Replacement of human and animal power with the machines to perform agricultural activities for higher output is called farm mechanization.

Q No. 3: What do you meant by tractorization?
Increasing in number of tractors only rather other agricultural machines in the process of farm mechanization is known as tractorization. Like in Pakistan, we are following tractorization except of farm mechanization.

Q No. 4: What are the major tractor companies in Pakistan?
Massy Ferguson (Millat Tractors Ltd.)
Case New Holland (Al-Ghazi Tractors Ltd.)
FORD tractors

Q No. 5: What are the available models of tractors and their hp?

Q No. 6: Define Engine.
It is a mechanical device, which converts the chemicals energy of fuel into mechanical energy.

Q No. 7: Describe engine terminologies.

Bore
The diameter of the engine cylinder is called bore.

Piston
A cylindrical plug that moves to and fro in the cylinder under the pressure of combustion gases and transmit power to the crankshaft through the connecting rod.

Top dead center
The top most pat of cylinder up to which piston can travel.

Bottom dead center
The lower most part of the cylinder up to which a piston can travel.

Stroke
The movement of piston from top dead center to bottom dead center or from BDC to TDC is called one stroke.

Compression ratio (CR).
It is the volume of air when the piston is at bottom dead centre divide by the volume of air when the piston is at, top dead centre.

Clearance volume (CV).
The volume of the cylinder when piston is at its top dead center is called clearance volume.

Q No. 8: What do you meant by a four stroke engine and a two stroke engine?

2- stroke cycle engine
When the process of power generation is being completed in two strokes of piston or with one revolution of crankshaft is require to complete an engine working cycle, is called 2 – stroke cycle engine.

4 – stroke engine
When the process of power generation is being completed in four strokes of piston or within the two revolution of crankshaft, is called 4 – stroke cycle engine.

Q No. 9: What is fuel?
Fuel is any material that stores energy that can later be extracted to perform mechanical work in a controlled manner.

Q No. 10: Define the calorific value of the fuel.
The amount of heat produced during the combination of unit volume of fuel is known as calorific value of that fuel.

Q No. 11: Define farm machinery.
Agricultural machinery is machinery used in the operation of an agricultural area or farm.

Q No. 12: What are the classification of farm/agricultural machines?

1. Manually-operated equipment
2. Animal-powered equipment
3. Machine-powered equipment
4. Land preparation machinery and equipment
5. Planting machinery machinery and equipment
6. Crop maintenance machinery and equipment
7. Crop harvesting machinery and equipment
8. Post-harvest machinery and Equipment
9. Livestock machinery and equipment

Q No. 13: What are the primary and secondary tillage implements?
Primary tillage refers to tillage after harvesting or on virgin part of land where soil is inverted and plant residues and sometimes manure/fertilizer is added. e.g. Disk plough, sub soiler, chisel plough, Mold blow plough.
On the other hand, secondary tillage is done after primary tillage and it involves breaking the soil particles into smaller pieces and sometimes includes formation of rows for planting. e.g. Disk harrow, cultivator.

Q No. 14: What are the intake and exhaust valves?
Intake valve: Such valve, which admits air or mixture into the combustion chamber.
Exhaust valve: Such valve, which permits burned gases to escape.

Q No. 15: What are water jackets?
These are the zigzag drilled holes in the cylinder block as well as the cylinder head to remove excess heat.

Q No. 16: What is meant by term Firing order (F.O)?
The sequence, through which power strokes take place in multi-cylinder engines is called Firing order.

Q No. 17: What is Carborator?
It is device of petrol fuel system, which breaks down the petrol into tiny particles and then mixes it with air.

Q No. 18: What is Clutch?
The clutch is a device in tractor (also in all vehicle) used to connect or disconnect the source of power to the rest for the transmission system.

Q No. 19: What is Gearbox?
The set of gears which is to increase or decrease the revolution coming from engine to the revolution (speed) at which it is required to drive the tractors wheals.

Q No. 20: What is Differential?
The power from the engine is transmitted in a straight line from the engine crankshaft through that gearbox. However the tractor wheel axle is a right angle to the crankshaft. So power must also be transmitted at right angles. So to differentiate the power to both the wheels, a differential box is used. Turning of a vehicle is possible only by this system.

Q No. 21: Define Horse power (HP)?
Answer: Power is the rate at which work is done. The rate at which the engine can do work is measured in horsepower.
One horsepower: 4500 kg-m/min.
One horsepower: 0.746 KW

Q No. 22: What is the power-Take-off horsepower?
The power, which is delivered by the tractor through its PTO shaft.

Q No. 23: What is Zero tillage?
No-till farming (also called zero tillage or direct planting or pasture cropping) is a way of growing crops from year to year without disturbing the soil through tillage.

Q No. 24: What is thresher?
Threshing machine (or thresher), a device that first separates the head of a stalk of grain from the straw, and then further separates the kernel from the rest of the head.

Q No. 25: What is combine harvester?
The combine harvester, or simply combine, is a machine that harvests grain crops. The name derives from the fact that it combines three separate operations, reaping, threshing, and winnowing, into a single process.

Q No. 26: What is draft power of an implement?
The power provided by some power source (tractor) which is required by an implement for its designed working. Different implement have different draft according to their nature of job and weight.

Q No. 27: Which are the major sources of farm power?
The different sources of power available on the farm for doing various mobile and stationary operations are as under:
Mobile Power

1. Human (men, women, children)
2. Draught animals (bullocks, buffaloes, camels, horses and ponies, mules and donkeys)
3. Tractors
4. Power tillers
5. Self propelled machine (combines, reapers, sprayers etc.)
   Stationary Power
6. Diesel/oil engines (for pump sets, threshers, sprayers and other stationary operations)
7. Electric motors (for pump sets, threshers, sprayers and other stationary operations)

Q No. 28: What is a seed drill?
A seed drill is a sowing device that precisely positions seeds in the soil, maintains row to row distance and then covers them. Drill does not maintain seed to seed distance.

Q No. 29: What is a planter?
A planter is a sowing device that precisely positions seeds at equal distance in the soil, maintains row to row distance and then covers them.

Q No. 30: What is field capacity of a farm machine?
The field capacity of a farm machine is the rate at which it performs its primary function, i.e., the number of acres that can be cultivated per hour (acre/hr) or the number of tons of wheat grains that can be threshed per hour (ton/hr).

Q No. 31: What is Renewable energy?
Renewable energy is energy which comes from natural resources such as sunlight, wind, rain, tides, and geothermal heat which are renewable (naturally replenished).

Q No. 32: What is Non Renewable energy?
Non renewable energy is that form of energy which is subject to depletion. These non-renewable energies like coal, oil and gas are getting scarce. Energy sources like oil, coal and gas are known as fossil fuels.

Q No. 33: What is Conservation tillage?
Conservation tillage is a tillage system that creates a suitable environment for growing a crop and that conserves soil, water and energy resources mainly through the reduction in the intensity of tillage, and retention of plant residues.

Q No. 34: Define energy conservation.
Energy conservation refers to efforts made to reduce energy consumption. Energy conservation can be achieved through increased efficient energy use, in conjunction with decreased energy consumption.

Q No. 35: What are post harvest losses?
The post harvest sector includes all points in the value chain from production in the field to the food being placed on a plate for consumption. Post harvest activities include: Harvesting, handling, storage, processing, packaging, transportation and marketing.

Q No. 36: What does AMRI stand for?
Agricultural machinery research institute

Q No. 37: What are the common equipments/machines being used for different farm activities in Pakistan?

Q No. 38: Define the farm waste.
Farm/Agricultural waste is waste produced as a result of various agricultural operations.

Q No. 39: What is organic farming?
Organic farming is the form of agriculture that relies on techniques such as crop rotation, green manure, compost and biological pest control to maintain soil productivity and control pests on a farm.

Q No. 40: What is Agricultural pollution?
Agricultural pollution comprises wastes, emissions, and discharges arising from farming activities. This includes runoff and leaching of pesticides and fertilizers; pesticide drift and volatilization; erosion and dust from cultivation; and improper disposal of animal manure and carcasses.

Q No. 41: Define surveying? (note: the heading on this one reads “Define surveying” in the scan, but the answer given is actually a definition of fertilizer — transcribed exactly as printed)
Fertilizer is any organic or inorganic material of natural or synthetic origin (other than liming materials) that is added to a soil to supply one or more plant nutrients essential to the growth of plants.

Q No. 42: What is the mean NPK?
NPK means Nitrogen Phosphorus and Potassium.

Q No. 43: Define surveying?
Surveying is the art of making such measurements as will determine the relative positions of points on the surface of the earth in order that the shape and extent of any portion of earth’s surface may be ascertained and delineated on a map or plan.
OR
It is essentially a process of determining position of points in a horizontal plan.

Q No. 44: What is the Theodolite?
The Theodolite is the most intricate and accurate instrument used for measurement of horizontal and vertical angle.

Q No. 45: Describe the plain table survey.
Plan Table surveying is a graphical method of surveying in which the field works and plotting are done simultaneously.

Q No. 46: When do you recommend the plane tabling?
It is particularly recommended for small scale or medium scale mapping in which great accuracy in detail is not required as for topographical surveys.

Q No. 47: What is meant by benchmark?
A bench mark is a fixed reference point of known elevation.

Q No. 48: What is meant by back sight?
A staff rod reading taken on a point of known elevation.

Q No. 49: What is meant of the height instrument?
The height of instrument is the elevation of the plane of collimation when the instrument is correctly leveled.

Q No. 50: How many systems are used to find out the reduced levels?
Two systems are working to find out the reduced level of points from the staff rod reading taken in the field.
a) The collimation system b) The rise and fall system.

Q No. 51: What is the meant by contour?
Contour may be defined as the line of intersection of a level surface with the surface of ground.

Q No. 52: What is the farm structure?
A structure that has a roof and walls and stands more or less permanently in one place.

Q No. 51 (renumbered in original — appears twice): What is Farm management?
Farm management is the collective term for various management strategies and methods that are employed to keep a farm productive and profitable.

Q No. 52 (renumbered in original — appears twice): What is Irrigation?
Irrigation may be defined as the science of artificial application of water to the land or soil. It is used to assist in the growing of agricultural crops.

Q No. 53: What are the sources of irrigation?
Surface water, ground water, rain water, and glacier.

Q No. 54: What is Indus basin irrigation system?
The Indus Basin Irrigation System comprises of three major reservoirs, 16 barrages, 2 head-works, 2 siphons across major rivers, 14 in Sindh, 5 in NWFP and 2 in Balochistan) and more than 107,000 water courses. The aggregate length of the canals is about 56,073 Km. In addition, the watercourses, farm channels and field ditches cover another 1.6 million Km.

Q No. 55: Define Dam.
A dam is a barrier that impounds water or underground streams. Dams generally serve the primary purpose of retaining water.

Q No. 56: How many number of Dams in Punjab Province?
Akhori Dam (planned)
Dhrabi Dam
Dohngi Dam
Ghabir Dam (under construction)
Kalabagh Dam (planned)
Khai Dam
Chiniot dam (planned)

Q No. 57: Define Barrage.
A type of dam which consists of a line of large gates that can be opened or closed to control the amount of water passing the dam. Or: It is a hydraulic structure which not only used for the distribution of water but as well as used for some storage of water.

Q No. 58: Enlist Barrages in Pakistan.
Rasul Barrage, Punjab
Tonsa Barrage, Punjab
Chashma Barrage, Punjab
Panjnad Barrage, Punjab
Guddu Barrage, Sindh
Sukkur Barrage, Sindh
Kotri Barrage, Sindh

Q No. 59: Define Head works.
It is hydraulic structure which is only used for the distribution of water.

Q No. 60: Define retaining wall.
A retaining wall is a structure desired to sustain the lateral pressure of earth and other material.

Q No. 61: Define irrigation canal.
A permanent irrigation conduit constructed to convey water from the source of supply to one or more farms.

Q No. 62: Define water course.
A watercourse is any flowing body of water. These include rivers, streams, anabranches, and so forth.

Q No. 63: What are the total annual water resources of Pakistan?
Total annual resources in Pakistan are as: Ground 50 MAF, surface 144 MAF, Rain fall 13-14 MAF

Q No. 64: What are the kinds of flow?
Flow is classified into open channel flow and closed conduit flow. Open channel flow conditions occur whenever the flowing stream has a free or unconstrained surface that is open to the atmosphere. In hydraulics, a pipe is any closed conduit that carries water under pressure.

Q No. 65: What are the common water measuring devices?
(1) Weirs
(2) Flumes
(3) Orifices
(4) Venturi meters
(5) Runup measurement on a flat “weir stick”

Q No. 66: What is flow totalization?
Water is sold and measured in terms of total volume consumed, say cubic feet, over some convenient time period, perhaps for billing each month. Many flow meters have built-in capability to sum or totalize volume continually. Thus, the volume consumed is obtained by taking the difference of two sequential monthly readings. This is known as flow totalization.

Q No. 67: What is hydraulic radius? (heading in scan repeats “What are the flow totalization?” — likely a print error; the answer given actually defines hydraulic radius, transcribed as printed)
Hydraulic radius, Rh, is defined as the area of the flow section divided by the wetted perimeter, Pw.

Q No. 68: Define wetted perimeter.
The wetted perimeter is the perimeter of the cross sectional area that is “wet.”

Q No. 69: Define weir.
A measuring weir is simply an overflow structure built perpendicular to an open channel axis to measure the rate of flow of water.

Q No. 70: Define orifice.
An orifice is any opening, mouth, hole or vent, as of a pipe, plate, or a body.

Q No. 71: Define flume.
A flume is an open artificial water channel, in the form of a gravity chute, that leads water from a diversion dam or weir completely aside a natural flow.
(Two labels appear without accompanying question text: “Cut throat flume” and “Partial flume” — likely sub-types listed under Q72, but Q72’s question text itself is not legible in the scan, so it’s skipped.)

Q No. 73: What is flow meter?
A flow meter is an instrument used to measure linear, nonlinear, mass or volumetric flow rate of a liquid or a gas.

Q No. 74: What is current meter?
The current meter is a self-contained current measuring sensor designed to measure the true magnitude and direction of horizontal current motion in any water environment.

Q No. 75: What is discharge?
Discharge is the volume rate of water flow which is transported through a given cross-sectional area.

Q No. 76: What is micro irrigation?
It is an irrigation method which saves water and fertilizer by allowing water to drip slowly to the roots of plants, either onto the soil surface or directly onto the root zone, through a network of valves, pipes, tubing, and emitters.

Q No. 77: What is irrigation scheduling?
Irrigation scheduling is the process used by irrigation system managers to determine the correct frequency and duration of watering.

Q No. 78: Define permanent wilting point.
Permanent wilting point (PWP) or wilting point (WP) is defined as the minimal point of soil moisture the plant requires not to wilt. If moisture decreases to this or any lower point a plant wilts and can no longer recover its turgidity when placed in a saturated atmosphere for 12 hours.

Q No. 79: What is field capacity?
Field capacity is the amount of soil moisture or water content held in soil after excess water has drained away and the rate of downward movement has materially decreased, which usually takes place within 2-3 days after a rain or irrigation in pervious soils of uniform structure and texture.

Q No. 80: Define pump.
A pump is a device used to move fluids, such as liquids, gases or slurries.

Q No. 81: Define drainage.
Drainage is the natural or artificial removal of surface and sub-surface water from an area. Many agricultural soils need drainage to improve production or to manage water supplies.

Q No. 82: What are the major rivers and their distributaries?

1. Indus — Tarbela dam (on the Kabul river near the Indus), Kalabagh barrage (also named as Jinnah barrage) at Kalabagh, Chashma reservoir, Tausa barrage, Gudu barrage, Sukkur barrage, Kotri barrage.
2. Jhelum — Mangla dam, Rasul barrage, Punjnad headworks.
3. Chenab — Marala headworks, Khanki headworks, Qadirabad barrage.
4. Ravi — Balloki barrage, Sidnai barrage.
5. Sutlej — Sulemanki barrage, Islam barrage.

Q No. 83: What are the units of measuring water?
Acre-inch (ac-in.): An acre-inch is the volume of water required to cover an acre of land with one inch of water. One acre-inch equals about 3,630 cubic feet or 27,154 gallons.
Acre-foot (ac-ft): An acre-foot is the volume of water required to cover an acre of land with 1 foot of water. One acre-foot equals about 43,560 cubic feet, 325,848 gallons or 12 acre-inches.
Cubic feet per second (cfs): One cubic foot per second is equivalent to a stream of water in a ditch 1-foot wide and 1-foot deep flowing at a velocity of 1 foot per second. It is also equal to 450 gallons per minute, or 40 miner’s-inches.
Gallons per minute (gpm): Gallons per minute is a measurement of the amount of water being pumped, or flowing within a ditch or coming out of a pipeline in one minute.

Q No. 84: Define water table.
The water table is the surface where the water pressure head is equal to the atmospheric pressure (where gauge pressure = 0).

Q No. 85: Define dry well.
A dry well is an underground structure that disposes of unwanted water, most commonly storm water runoff, by dissipating it into the ground, where it merges with the local groundwater.

MCQs CHAPTER NO. 1

Q.No.1. The mechanics of liquids and gases which is based on the same fundamental principles that are employed in the mechanics of solids is called:
(a) Soil mechanics (b) Fluid mechanics (c) Mechanics of material (d) Engineering mechanics.

Q.No.2. The combining of classical hydrodynamics with the study of real fluid is related to the science, called:
(a) Soil mechanics (b) Mechanics of material (c) Fluid mechanics (d) Engineering mechanics.

Q.No.3. A gas having temperature and pressure very near to the liquid phase:
(a) Steam (b) Vapour (c) Compressed gas (d) Fluid.

Q.No.4. Specific weight of fluid is:
(a) Mass per unit volume (b) Weight per unit volume (c) Specific weight per unit weight (d) Weight per unit density.

Q.No.5. Specific weight (γ) has unit:
(a) N/m³ (b) Kg/m³ (c) m³/N (d) N.S²/m⁴

Q.No.6. The compressibility of a liquid is _____ to its volume modulus of elasticity:
(a) Inversely proportional (b) Directly proportional (c) Equal (d) None of these.

Q.No.7. The typical value of modulus of elasticity of cold water at 0°C and pressure 100 KPa:
(a) 2130 MN/m² (b) 2530 MN/m² (c) 2830 MN/m² (d) 2730 MN/m²

Q.No.8. An ideal fluid may be defined as there is no _______:
(a) Pressure (b) Volume (c) Friction (d) Temperature

Q.No.9. The measure of fluid’s resistance to sheer or angular deformation is:
(a) Normality (b) Viscosity (c) Molarity (d) Compressibility

Q.No.10. Specific weight of water at 20°C (1013 m.bar. abs) with g = 9.8 m/s² is:
(a) 10.1 KN/m³ (b) 9.81 KN/m³ (c) 8.5 KN/m³ (d) 9.1 KN/m³

Q.No.11. For air the value of gas constant R is:
(a) 462 N.m/(Kg.k) (b) 287 N.m/(Kg.k) (c) 728 N.m/(Kg.k) (d) None of these

Q.No.12. Specific weight of air (molecular weight = 290) at 20°C and 1013 mbar.abs with g = 9.81 m/S² is:
(a) 0.012 kN/m³ (b) 10.1 KN/m³ (c) 9.81 kN/m³ (d) 8.5 N/m³

Q.No.13. In SI unit pressure is expressed in:
(a) Joule (b) N/m² (c) N.m (d) N/m³

Q.No.14. The unit of viscosity is poise which is equal to:
(a) 0.01 N.S./m² (b) 0.01 m N.S/m² (c) N.S/m² (d) All of these

Q.No.15. Kinematic viscosity is usually measured in cm²/S, which is also called:
(a) Poise (b) Joule (c) Pascal (d) Stoke

Q.No.16. A fluid for which the constant of proportionality (i.e. the viscosity) does not change with rate of deformation is said to be a:
(a) Real fluid (b) Ideal fluid (c) Newtonian fluid (d) Compressional fluid

Q.No.17. Differential manometers are used to measure:
(a) Viscosity (b) Volume (c) Temperature (d) Pressure

Q.No.18. The buoyant force on any body is equal to fluid displaced:
(a) Mass (b) Weight (c) Volume (d) b and c both.

Q.No.19. In the uniform flow, ______ remains same:
(a) Depth (b) Velocity (c) Temperature (d) Depth and velocity

Q.No.20. What is the formula of volume flow rate:
(a) Q = AV (b) G = γAV (c) M = fAV (d) N = AV

Q.No.21. Select the equations of continuity:
(a) Q = A₁V₁ = A₂V₂ (b) f₁A₁V₁ = f₂A₂V₂ = M (c) γ₁A₁V₁ = γ₂A₂V₂ = G (d) All of these

Q.No.22. Select the continuity equation that applies to incompressible fluids for both steady and unsteady flow within fixed boundaries:
(a) Q = A₁V₁ = A₂V₂ (b) M = f₁A₁V₁ = f₂A₂V₂ (c) G = γ₁A₁V₁ = γ₂A₂V₂ (d) None of these

Q.No.23. If the flow is such that all streamlines are plane curves and are identical in a series of parallel planes, it is called:
(a) Uniform flow (b) Uniform unsteady flow (c) Two dimensional flow (d) Laminar flow

Q.No.24. If the flow is steady, the fluid may possess an acceleration by virtue of a change in velocity with change in position; this type of acceleration is called:
(a) Convective acceleration (b) Local acceleration (c) Tangential acceleration (d) Normal acceleration.

Q.No.25. The sum of the pressure head, elevation head and velocity head is called:
(a) Volume flow rate (b) Mass flow rate (c) Head (d) Weight flow rate

Q.No.26. Write the correct formula of the total head and Bernoulli’s theory:
(a) P/γ + Z + V²/2g (b) P/2γ + z/2 + V²/g (c) P/2γ + Z + V²/2g (d) All of these

Q.No.27. The ratio of the area of the jet to the area of the orifice or the opening is called:
(a) Cc (b) Cv (c) Co (d) None of these.

Answers: 1:b, 2:c, 3:b, 4:b, 5:a, 6:a, 7:b, 8:c, 9:b, 10:b, 11:b, 12:b, 13:a, 14:d, 15:c, 16:d, 17:d, 18:d, 19:d, 20:d, 21:c, 22:a, 23:c, 24:a, 25:a

MCQs CHAPTER-2

Q.No.26. Geometric similarity means that the model and its prototype be identical in shape but ______ only in size:
(a) Same (b) Differ (c) May be same or may differ (d) None of these.

Q.No.27. Scale ratio is equal to the:
(a) Lp/Lm (b) Lm/Lp (c) Lp/Lr (d) Lm/λ

Q.No.28. Model ratio should be:
(a) 1:20 (b) 20:1 (c) 10:1 (d) 1:10

Q.No.29. The ratio of inertia forces to viscous forces is called:
(a) Mach number (b) Froude number (c) Weber number (d) none of these

Q.No.30. Reynolds number R is equal to:
(a) LV/v (b) V²/gL (c) LV/V² (d) V/C

Q.No.30 (again — duplicate numbering in original). Square root of the ratio of the inertial force to the gravity force is called:
(a) Froude number (b) Reynolds number (c) Mach number (d) Weber number

Q.No.31. Select the correct formula of Froude number:
(a) Dv/v (b) Lv/v (c) V/√gL (d) none of these

Q.No.32. If g is considered to be the same and F is also same, so:
(a) Qr = Lr^(5/2)/l (b) Qr = Lr^(1/2)/l (c) Qr = Lr^(3/2)/l (d) Qr = l

Q.No.33. Square root of the ratio of the inertia to elastic forces:
(a) Mach number (b) Froude number (c) Reynolds number (d) Weber number

Q.No.34. For extremely high value of Mach number M, the flow is:
(a) Super sonic (b) Hyper sonic (c) Sub sonic (d) Sonic

Q.No.35. The square root of the ratio of the inertial forces to surface tension is called:
(a) Weber number (b) Mach number (c) Froude number (d) Euler number.

Q.No.36. Select the correct formula of the Weber number:
(a) W = V/√σ (b) V/C (c) V/√gL (d) V/√(2gρ/r)

Q.No.37. The square root of the ratio of the inertial forces to the pressure forces is called:
(a) Weber number (b) Mach number (c) Euler number (d) Froude number

Q.No.38. What is the dimension of discharge?
(a) L²T⁻¹ (b) L²T⁻² (c) L³T⁻¹ (d) L³T

Q.No.39. What is the dimension of power?
(a) MLT⁻² (b) ML⁻¹T⁻² (c) ML²T⁻³ (d) ML²T⁻²

Q.No.40. A mathematical technique making use of the study of dimensions is called:
(a) Dimensional analysis (b) Vector Analysis (c) Calculus (d) Mechanics

Q.No.41. If there are n dimensional variables in a dimensionally homogeneous equation, described by m fundamental dimensions, they may be grouped into n-m dimensionless groups. This is called:
(a) Rayleigh method (b) Buckingham Theorem (c) Both a & b (d) None of these

Q.No.42. What is the hydraulic Radius?
(a) Rh = P/A (b) Rh = A/d (c) Rh = A/p (d) Rh = D/A

Q.No.43. Hydraulic radius for a full flowing circular pipe is:
(a) Rh = D/4 (b) Rh = r/2 (c) Rh = πr²/2πr (d) all of these (e) None of these

Q.No.44. hL = fLV²/D2g. This equation is known as:
(a) Pipe friction equation (b) Darcy Weisbach equation (c) Fanning equation (d) Bernoulli’s equation (e) a,b

Q.No.45. If in the pipe friction equation D is replaced by Hydraulic Radius R, then this equation is known as:
(a) Darcy Weisbach equation (b) Pipe friction equation (c) Fanning equation (d) none of these.

Q.No.46. V = 0.85 C_hw Rh^0.63 S^0.54. This formula is called:
(a) Manning formula (b) Chazy formula (c) Chazy formula (d) None of these. (options (b) and (c) are printed identically in the scan)

Q.No.47. What is the Manning formula in MKS system?
(a) V = 0.85 C_hw Rh^0.63 S^0.54 (b) V = 1/n Rh^(2/3) S^(1/2) (c) V = 49/n Rh^(2/3) S^(1/2) (d) V = 100/n Rh^(2/3) S^(1/2)

Q.No.48. If pipes are in series, what would occur:
(a) Q = Q1 = Q2 = Q3… (b) hL = hL1+hL2+hL3+… (c) Q = hL, Q2 = h2 (d) None of these

Q.No.49. Flow rate through an orifice meter is commonly expressed as:
(a) Q = KA₀√2g[(P1/γ+Z1)-(P2/γ+Z2)](b) Q = CAv√1-(D2/D1)⁴ √2g[(P1/γ+Z1)-(P2/γ+Z2)](c) Q = 1/√1-(A2/A1)² √2g[(Z1+P1/γ)-(Z2+P1/γ)](d) None of these.

Q.No.50. The discharge of an overflow spillway is given by the Weber equation:
(a) Q = C_wLH^(3/2) (b) Q = C_wL^(3/2)H (c) Q = C_w^(3/2)LH (d) Q = C_wLH^(3/2)

Answers: 26:b, 27:[check from internet], 28:a, 29:d, 30:a, 30(again):a, 31:c, 32:a, 33:a, 34:b, 35:a, 36:c, 37:c, 38:c, 39:c, 40:a, 41:b, 42:c, 43:d, 44:e, 45:c, 46:b, 47:b, 48:a, 49:a, 50:a.

CHAPTER-3

Q.No.51. The application of engineering principles to the solution of soil and water management problems:
(a) Fluid mechanics (b) Soil mechanics (c) Soil & water conservation engineering (d) Engineering mechanics

Q.No.52. The engineering problems involved in soil and water conservation may be divided into ______ phases:
(a) six (b) Five (c) Four (d) Two.

Q.No.53. The removal of excess water from wetland is called:
(a) Irrigation (b) Drainage (c) Vegetation (d) Moisture conservation

Q.No.54. The application of water to land having a deficiency of moisture for optimum crop growth is called:
(a) Drainage (b) Irrigation (c) Vegetation (d) Flood control

Q.No.55. The prevention of overflow on low land and the reduction of flood in streams during and after heavy storms is called:
(a) Erosion control (b) Drainage (c) Irrigation (d) Flood control.

Q.No.56. The application of modified tillage and crop management practices including natural and artificial mulching techniques is called:
(a) Erosion control (b) Flood control (c) Moisture conservation (d) Water resource development.

Q.No.57. The collection and storage of surface water as well as the recharge and orderly development of ground water supplies is called:
(a) Moisture conservation (b) Water resource development (c) Drainage (d) Water resource development (options (b) and (d) are printed identically)

Q.No.58. Drizzle consists of quite uniform precipitation with drops less than ______ in diameter:
(a) 0.5 mm (b) 0.4 mm (c) 0.6 mm (d) 0.3 mm.

Q.No.59. The movement of water through the soil profile is called:
(a) Infiltration (b) Percolation (c) Runoff (d) Transpiration.

Q.No.60. Infiltration rate is high; ______ water will pass through the soil surface and erosion will ______:
(a) Less, increase (b) More, reduce (c) Less, reduce (d) More, increase.

Q.No.61. The rate of evaporation has been found to ______ with ______ in the content of the water:
(a) Increase, decrease (b) Decrease, increase (c) Decrease, decrease (d) Increase, increase. (e) a,b (f) c,d

Q.No.62. To find the evaporation from reservoirs, the calculated evaporation should be multiplied by:
(a) 0.77 (b) 0.67 (c) 7.7 (d) 6.7

Q.No.63. The ratio of weight of water transpired to the weight of dry matter in the plant is called:
(a) Transportation ratio (b) Evapotranspiration ratio (c) Infiltration ratio (d) None of those

Q.No.64. Uniform removal of soil in a thin layer from sloping land is called:
(a) Sheet erosion (b) Rill erosion (c) Gully erosion (d) Stream channel erosion.

Q.No.65. Run off will occur only when the rate of ______ exceeds the rate at which water infiltrates in the soil:
(a) Precipitation (b) Infiltration (c) Evaporation (d) None of these.

Q.No.66. The ratio of the peak run off rate to the rainfall intensity is called:
(a) Run-off co-efficient (b) Intensity co-efficient (c) Infiltration co-efficient (d) none of these.

Q.No.67. Select the formula used to determine the peak run off:
(a) q = KA^b (b) Q = KA^b (c) q = K^bA (d) None of these

Q.No.68. The removal of soil from the land by running water, including runoff from melted snow and ice:
(a) Soil erosion (b) Water erosion (c) Wind erosion (d) None of these.

Q.No.69. The product of the K.E. of the storm and maximum 30-min intensity is called:
(a) Infiltration index (b) Rainfall index (c) Run-off index (d) Rainfall & runoff erosivity index

Q.No.70. The process by which moisture is returned to the air from liquid to gaseous state is called:
(a) Evaporation (b) Transpiration (c) Evapotranspiration (d) None of these.

Answers: 51:c, 52:a, 53:b, 54:b, 55:d, 56:a, 57:b, 58:a, 59:b, 60:b, 61:e, 62:a, 63:a, 64:a, 65:a, 66:a, 67:a, 68:b, 69:d, 70:a.

CHAPTER-4

Q.No.1. The application of the laws of mechanics and hydraulics to engineering problems dealing with sediments and other consolidated accumulation of solid particles produced by mechanical and chemical disintegration of rocks (regardless of whether or not they contain an admixture of organic constituents) is called:
(a) Fluid mechanics (b) Soil mechanics (c) Soil Science (d) Engineering mechanics.

Q.No.2. The practice of engineering which applies the principles of soil mechanics to the design of engineering structures is called:
(a) Soil Science (b) Soil Engineering (c) Engineering Mechanics (d) Fluid Mechanics.

Q.No.3. The ratio of the density of a given volume of soil solid to the density of an equal volume of pure water is called:
(a) Mass ratio (b) Specific gravity (c) Specific weight (d) Void ratio

Q.No.4. Specific gravity of soil at +4°C is: (the answer options for this one — a fraction involving “Gw 4°” and “Gw 20°” — are laid out ambiguously in the scan and can’t be reliably transcribed; skipped)

Q.No.5. The ratio of the volume of the void to total volume of the soil is called ______:
(a) Void ratio (b) Specific gravity (c) Porosity (d) Soil moisture content

Q.No.6. Ratio of the volume of void to volume of solids is termed as ______:
(a) Relative porosity (b) Porosity (c) Void ratio (d) a,c

Q.No.7. When all voids in the soil are filled with water, then ______:
(a) Vv = n (b) Vv = e (c) Vv = Y (d) None of these

Q.No.8. The amount of water contained in the void of soil is called:
(a) Soil moisture content (b) Moisture ratio (c) Porosity (d) None of these (e) Degree of saturation

Q.No.9. The ratio of actual volume of voids filled with water to the total volume of void is called:
(a) Soil moisture content (b) Porosity (c) Void ratio (d) Degree of saturation

Q.No.10. When degree of saturation S = 1, then soil is a ______:
(a) Two phase system (b) Three phase system (c) Single phase system (d) None of these

Q No. 11: The spacing and mutual arrangement of soil particles within the mass of soil is called:
a) Packing b) Compaction c) Consideration d) None of these.

Q No.12: The ratio of the diameter of the particles which has 60 percent of the sample finer than the size shown to the size which has 10% by weight material finer than these size, d10, is called:
a) Packing b) Coefficient c) Coefficient of uniformity d) Degree of saturation

Q No.13: If coefficient of uniformity is greater than 15, then soil is:
a) Uniform b) Medium uniform c) Non uniform d) None of these

Q No.14: Weight of soil per unit of its volume is called:
a) Specific weight b) Specific gravity c) Unit gravity d) Unit weight

Q No.15: In the British system of units, unit weight of water is:
a) 62.4 lb/ft³ b) 1000 lb/ft³ c) 1000 kg/m³ d) 1 t/m³

Q No.16: The increase in the dry density of the soil by the dynamic load is called:
a) Packing b) Compaction c) Consolidation d) Erosion

Q No.17: The increase in the density of the soil by the static load is called:
a) Packing b) Compaction c) Erosion d) Consolidation

Q No.18: The ratio of the field density to the standard laboratory density of the soil is called:
a) Unit weight b) Uniformity c) Relative compaction d) Consolidation

Q No.19: The moisture content in percent of a soil by dry weight at the maximum dry density of that soil is called:
a) Soil moisture content b) Porosity c) Void ratio d) Optimum moisture content

Q No.20: Compaction increases the density of the soil, this increasing its ______ and bearing capacity:
a) Shear strength b) Permeability c) Tendency d) None of these.

Q No.21: Ratio of actual decrease in volume of void in a soil to the maximum decrease in volume of void of soil particles:
a) Relative density b) Relative compaction c) Consolidation d) Packing

Q No.22: We can measure the liquid limit by the method:
a) Casagrande’s Method b) Proctor soil compaction test c) Penetrometer d) none of these.

Q No.23: The degree of cohesion between the soil particles ______:
a) Degree of saturation b) Degree of compaction c) Soil consistency d) None of these

Q No.24: The moisture content of the soil at which the soil transforms from the semisolid to solid state is termed as:
a) Liquid limit b) Plastic limit c) Shrinkage limit d) Plastic limit (options (b) and (d) are printed identically)

Q No.25: The moisture content at which the plastic properties of the cohesive soil are lost is termed as:
a) Liquid limit b) Plastic state c) Plastic limit d) Shrinkage limit

Q No.26: The moisture content at which the cohesive soil mass becomes layered and somewhat stiffer:
a) Liquid limit b) Shrinkage limit c) Plastic limit d) Liquid state

Q No.27: The difference in moisture content between liquid and plastic limits is termed as:
a) Plasticity index b) Shrinkage index c) Liquidity index d) None of these.

Q No.28: The ratio of difference between the moisture content and P.L. to the P.I. is called:
a) Consistency index b) Relative plasticity index c) Liquidity index d) all of these

Answers: 1:b 2:b 3:b 4:c 5:c 6:d 7:a 8:b 9:c 10:a 11:a 12:b 13:c 14:c 15:c 16:a 17:b 18:c 19:d 20:c 21:a 22:c 23:a 24:a 25:c 26:a 27:a 28:d

CHAPTER 5

Q No.1: Flow in an open channel is said to be ______ if depth of flow does not change during the time interval under consideration:
a) Steady flow b) uniform flow c) Steady uniform flow d) unsteady flow

Q No.2: Flow in an open channel is said to be ______ if depth of flow changes during the time interval under consideration:
a) Steady flow b) uniform flow c) Unsteady non-uniform flow d) Unsteady flow

Q No.3: Where the discharge of a steady flow is non-uniform along the channel, this type of flow is called:
a) Non uniform flow b) Unsteady flow c) Spatially varied d) Discontinuous flow (e) c,d

Q No.4: In open channel flow, if depth of flow is the same at every section of the channel, the flow is called:
a) Steady section of the channel b) Uniform flow c) Continuous flow d) Unsteady

Q No.5: The depth of flow remains constant during the time interval under consideration; this type of flow is called:
a) Steady b) Uniform c) Steady uniform flow d) Unsteady uniform flow

Q No.6: In a flow when water fluctuates from time to time while remaining parallel to the channel bottom, it is called:
a) Steady non-uniform b) Unsteady uniform c) Steady uniform d) Unsteady non-uniform

Q No.7: If depth changes abruptly over a comparatively short distance, it is termed as:
a) Rapidly varied flow b) Rapidly steady flow c) Gradually varied flow d) none of these.

Q No.8: If the viscous forces are strong relative to inertial force, the flow will be:
a) Turbulent b) Transitional c) Laminar d) None of these

Q No.9: If the viscous forces are weak relative to the inertial forces, the flow is termed as:
a) Turbulent b) Laminar c) Transitional d) None of these

Q No.10: The effect of viscosity relative to inertia can be represented by:
a) Reynolds number b) Froude number c) Mach number d) Weber number

Q No.11: Cross-sectional area of the water in the channel divided by the width of the free surface is called:
a) Diameter b) Hydraulic depth c) Hydraulic area d) None of these

Q No.12: The effect of gravity upon the state of flow is represented by the ratio of inertial force to gravity force; this ratio is termed as:
a) Reynolds number b) Froude number c) Weber number d) Mach number

Q No.13: When Froude number equals unity, the flow is said to be:
a) Sub critical b) Critical c) Supercritical d) None of these

Q No.14: When Froude number is less than unity, the flow is termed as:
a) Sub critical b) Critical c) Super critical d) None of these

Q No.15: When Froude number is greater than unity, the flow is termed as:
a) Sub critical b) Critical c) Super critical d) hypersonic

Q No.16: A long and mild-sloped channel built in the ground, which may be unlined or lined, is called:
a) Flume b) Chute c) Canal d) Culvert

Q No.17: A channel of wood, metal, concrete, or masonry, usually supported on or above the surface of the ground to carry water across a depression:
a) Canal b) Chute c) Flume d) Open channel tunnel

Q No.18: A channel having steep slope is called:
a) Canal b) Flume c) Culvert d) Chute

Q No.19: A covered channel of comparatively short length is called:
a) Open channel tunnel b) Culvert c) Chute d) Flume

Q No.20: A comparatively long covered channel that carries water through a hill, used to avoid obstruction on the ground:
a) Open channel tunnel b) Culvert c) Flume d) Chute

Q No.21: A channel built with unvarying cross section and constant bottom slope is called:
a) Culvert b) Prismatic c) Erodible d) Non erodible channel

Q No.22: What is the area of the trapezoidal channel?
a) by b) (b+zy)y c) b+√2y(1+z²) d) zy²

Q No.23: When water flows in a channel, a force is developed that acts in the direction of flow on the channel bed; this is termed as:
a) Attractive force b) Specific energy c) Specific force d) none of these.

Q No.24: In a channel with a longitudinal slope angle, the depth of flow is equal to the depth of flow section divided by:
a) cosθ b) sinθ c) tanθ d) cotθ

Q No.25: Cross sectional area of the flow normal to the direction of flow is called:
a) Top width b) Wetted perimeter c) Water area d) Hydraulic radius

Q No.26: The ratio of the water area to the top width is called:
a) Hydraulic depth b) Hydraulic radius c) Section factor d) Depth

Q No.27: The product of the water area and the square root of the hydraulic depth is termed as:
a) the section for uniform-flow computation b) the section for critical-flow computation c) the hydraulic radius d) none of these

Q No.28: The product of the water area and the two-thirds power of the hydraulic radius:
a) The section factor for uniform flow computation b) The section factor for critical flow computation c) The section factor for non-uniform flow computation d) None of these (option wording partly unclear in scan — transcribed as best legible)

Q No.29: The measured maximum velocity in ordinary channels usually appears to occur below the free surface at a distance of ______ to ______ of the depth:
a) 0.5 to 0.75 b) 0.05 to 0.25 c) 0.25 to 0.5 d) 0.05 to 0.5

Q No.30: Coriolis coefficient’s value varies from about ______ to ______ for fairly straight prismatic channels:
a) 1.03 to 1.36 b) 1.01 to 1.12 c) 1.36 to 1.46 d) 1.03 to 1.12

Q No.31: The value of the Boussinesq coefficient (momentum coefficient) for fairly straight prismatic channels varies approximately from ______ to ______:
a) 1.03 to 1.36 b) 1.01 to 1.12 c) 1.03 to 1.02 d) (illegible in scan — skipped)

Q No.32: The hydrostatic law of pressure distribution does not hold strictly for ______:
a) Uniform flow b) steady flow c) Gradually varied flow d) rapidly varied flow

Q No.33: The line representing the elevation of the total head of flow is termed as:
a) Energy line b) Hydraulic grade line c) Datum line d) none of these

Q No.34: Energy per pound of water at any section of a channel, measured with respect to the channel bottom, is called:
a) Kinetic energy b) Potential energy c) Energy d) none of these

Q No.35: Specific energy is equal to the sum of the depth of water and _____

…(c) Density of sound (d) Volume of sound.

Q No.6: When salt or sediment deposition exceeds that of its removal, then ______ is formed:
a) Dam b) Delta c) Aquifer d) Head

Q No.7: The term used for waste liquids being discharged from industries and sewage is called:
a) Effluent b) Waste water c) Drainage water d) none of these

Q No.8: The physical, chemical and biological condition surrounding organisms is termed as:
a) Ecosystem b) Ecology c) Cyclone d) Environment

Q No.9: Garbage wastes have a moisture content of about:
a) 25% b) 70% c) 5% d) 85%

Q No.10: Requirement of water per head per day is ______ to ______ litres:
a) 50 to 100 b) 100 to 150 c) 150 d) 300 to 400

Q No.11: In the composition of air, Nitrogen is present at:
a) 78% b) 25% c) 50% d) 12%

Q No.12: Which of the following fuels is the more environment-friendly?
a) Petrol b) Diesel c) Compressed natural gas d) Coal

Q No.13: How much area is affected by wind erosion?
a) Two Million b) 5 Million c) Ten Million d) 2.1 Million hectares

Q No.14: How much area is water logged in the arid zone?
a) 1.88 million hectares b) 0.17 million hectares c) 0.05 million hectares d) 2.1 million hectares

Q No.15: Standard Noise level for urban area:
a) 75 db b) 80 db c) 55 db d) 60 db.

Q No.16: Ozone gas is a form of oxygen with ______ atoms:
a) Five b) Four c) Two d) Three

Q No.17: Ozone is found in the stratosphere ______ to ______ kilometers above the earth’s surface:
a) 15 to 50 b) 50 to 100 c) 100 to 150 d) 150 to 200

Q No.18: Clinical waste can be categorized into ______ categories:
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

Q No.19: In the world, ______ million tons of pathological waste is produced in hospitals per annum:
a) 50 b) 100 c) 20 d) 10

Q No.20: In Pakistan, annual consumption of plastic is ______ tonnes:
a) 40,000 b) 50,000 c) 70,000 d) 100,000

Answers: 1:b 2:c 3:a 4:a 5:b 6:b 7:a 8:a 9:b 10:c 11:a 12:c 13:a 14:a 15:c 16:d 17:a 18:a 19:c 20:b

CHAPTER NO. 7

Q No.1: The ratio of the final and initial volumes of the gas is known as:
a) Ratio of expansion b) Expansion ratio c) Volume ratio d) all of these

Q.No.2: When a gas is heated at constant temperature, the pressure multiplied by the volume remains constant. This is according to:
a) Boyle’s law b) Charles’ law c) Joule’s law d) Avogadro’s law.

Q N3: The change of internal energy is proportional to the change of temperature. This is according to:
a) Boyle’s law b) Joule’s law c) Dalton’s law of partial pressure d) Avogadro’s law.

Q No.4: All gases at the same temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules per unit volume. This is stated according to:
a) Avogadro’s law b) Poisson’s law of partial pressure c) Joule’s law d) Charles’ law

Q.NO.5: A cycle requiring two complete revolutions is known as ______:
a) Two stroke cycle b) Four stroke cycle c) Three stroke cycle d) None of these

Q No.6: A cycle requiring one revolution for its completion is known as ______:
a) Four stroke cycle b) Two stroke cycle c) Single stroke cycle d) None of these

Q.NO.7: The cycle consists of two constant-pressure lines and two reversible adiabatic lines; this cycle is known as:
a) Joule cycle b) Otto cycle c) Carnot cycle d) Diesel cycle

Q.NO.8: A cycle consisting of two constant pressure processes and two reversible adiabatic processes is known as ______:
a) Joule cycle b) Constant pressure cycle c) Volume cycle d) a,b (e) a,c

Q.NO.9: The cycle consists of two reversible adiabatic processes, one constant pressure line and one constant volume line. This cycle is known as ______:
a) Joule’s cycle b) Otto cycle c) The Diesel cycle d) The Sterling cycle

Q.NO.10: In the Nozzle, the velocity of steam at the throat is ______ for maximum discharge:
a) Sonic b) Sub-sonic c) Super-sonic d) Hyper sonic

Q.NO.11: The flow of steam in the Nozzle between inlet and throat is ______:
a) Sonic b) Subsonic c) Super Sonic d) Hyper Sonic

Q.NO.12: What is the ratio of fuel to air for an engine?
a) 1:15 b) 2:15 c) 1:20 d) 1:10

Q.NO.13: The loss in relative velocity of stream due to friction is:
a) 10 to 15 percent b) 15-20 percent c) 20 to 25 percent d) 5 to 10 percent

Q.NO.14: The speed of the de-Laval turbine is:
a) 40000 rev/min b) 30000 rev/sec c) 30000 rev/min d) 30000 rev/h

Q.NO.15: Orsat apparatus is used to analyze:
a) Air fuel ratio b) Flue gases c) Speed of turbine d) All of these

Q.NO.16: If a propulsion unit contains its own oxygen supply for combustion purposes, the system is known as:
a) Jet propulsion b) Rocket propulsion c) Ram propulsion d) Turbo propulsion

Q.NO.17: The cycle consisting of two isothermal processes and two constant volume processes is termed as:
a) The Sterling cycle b) Otto cycle c) Diesel cycle d) Dual combustion cycle

Q.NO.18: Efficiency of the Otto cycle can be written as: (the four formula options use exponent notation that’s too degraded in the scan to transcribe reliably — skipped)

Q.NO.19: Entropy is a property of a material, which varies with its absolute ______ and its state:
a) Volume b) Temperature c) Density d) Mass

Q.NO.20: The ratio between the heat abstracted and work done by a refrigerator is known as:
a) Net refrigerating effect b) Coefficient of performance c) Relative coefficient of performance d) All of these

Q.NO.21: The amount of heat required to raise unit weight of a substance through one degree of temperature is:
a) Specific heat b) Specific temperature c) Specific energy d) Specific work

Answers: 1:d 2:a 3:b 4:a 5:b 6:b 7:b 8:d 9:c 10:a 11:b 12:a 13:a 14:c 15:b 16:b 17:a 18:a 19:b 20:b 21:a

CHAPTER 8

Q.NO.1. To determine the in-place density of soil, ______ is used:
a) Sand Displacement method b) Proctor soil compaction test c) Needle penetration test d) Casagrande’s method

Q.NO.2. The resistance to deformation by continuous shear displacement of soil particles is called:
a) Shear strength of soil b) In-place density of soil c) Strain shear strength of soil (a fourth option, if present, is cut off in the scan)

Q.NO.3. The shear strength of soil is usually determined experimentally by the method:
a) Direct Shear test b) Triaxial compression test c) Unconfined compression test d) All of these (e) None of these

Q.NO.4. What is Coulomb’s shear strength equation?
a) τ = σeff tan φ + C b) τ = σeff tan φ + C c) τ = σeff cot φ + C d) τ = σeff cos φ + C (options (a) and (b) are printed identically in the scan)

Q.NO.5. A shear test where the shear resistance of the soil sample is measured immediately after the application of the normal load is known as:
a) The Quick test b) The Consolidated Quick test c) The Consolidated Slow test d) None of these

Q.NO.6. A structure designed to sustain the lateral pressure of earth and other material is termed as:
a) Retaining walls b) Dams c) Highway d) None of these

Q.NO.7. Lateral forces interacting between the earth-retaining structure and retained earth mass are caused by:
a) Lateral force b) Shear force c) Passive earth resistance (a fourth option, if present, is cut off)

Q.NO.8. Pressure of backfill material on a retaining wall is termed as:
a) Active earth pressure b) Passive earth pressure c) Passive earth resistance

Q.NO.9. If the inner or back face of the retaining wall is dragged towards the backfill, then the pressure exerted on the wall is called:
a) Active earth pressure b) Passive earth pressure c) Passive earth resistance d) b,c

Q.NO.10. Additional load applied to backfill, or dead backfill load, is called:
a) Active earth pressure b) Passive earth pressure c) Surcharge

Q.NO.11. A hump is used to:
a) Increase the velocity of water b) Dissipate the energy c) Increase the discharge d) Increase the top width (e) a & b.

Q.NO.12. Traction means:
a) The force developed by the attractive device. b) The force which acts on the tractor c) The force developed by the moving water d) None of these (e) a, b.

Q.NO.13. If fuel is burnt away from the engine cylinder rather than inside it, it is called:
a) Internal combustion engine b) External combustion engine c) Spark ignition Engine d) Diesel type IC Engine

Q.NO.14. The part of the engine which converts linear motion of the piston into rotational motion of the flywheel is treated as:
a) Crank shaft b) Cam shaft c) Fly wheel d) Connecting rod

Q.NO.15. The horsepower available on the crankshaft is known as:
a) Brake Horse power b) SAE Horse power c) Power take off

Q.NO.16. Resistance to motion between two bodies in contact with each other is called:
a) Viscosity b) Friction c) Evaporation d) normality

Q.NO.17. If all points in a system move in parallel motion, then that system undergoes:
a) Rotary motion b) Linear motion c) Planar motion d) Curvilinear motion

Q.NO.18. Temperature of the burning gases in the engine cylinder reaches up to:
a) 3500°C to 4000°C b) 1500°C to 2000°C c) 1000°C to 1500°C d) 1200°C to 1400°C

Answers: 1:a 2:a 3:d 4:a 5:a 6:a 7:a 8:a 9:d 10:c 11:e 12:e 13:b 14:a 15:a 16:b 17:c 18:b

CHAPTER-9

Q No.1: 1 degree angle is equal to:
a) π/180 radian b) 180/π radian c) 2π/180 radian d) 180/2π radian

Q No.2: A chain which is 100 ft long and is divided into 100 links each one foot in length is called:
a) Gunter’s chain b) Revenue chain c) Engineer’s chain d) None of these

Q No.3: A clinometer is usually used to measure:
a) Angle of slope b) Length of slope c) Height d) Velocity of air.

Q No.4: Plane table surveying is a ______ method of surveying:
a) Mathematical b) Physical c) Graphical d) Geometrical

Q No.5: There are ______ methods of surveying with the plane table:
a) Five b) Four c) Two d) Three

Q No.6: To determine the areas of figures plotted to scale, the instrument called is:
a) Clinometer b) Anemometer c) Planimeter d) Theodolite.

Q No.7: Back sight is also called:
a) Negative sight b) Plus sight c) Intermediate sight d) Upper sight.

Q No.8: A fixed reference point of known elevation is called:
a) Back sight b) Foresight c) Bench Mark d) Intermediate sight

Q No.9: The science which deals with the relation between forces acting on rigid bodies is:
a) Fluid mechanics b) Mechanics c) Soil Mechanics d) Engineering medium

Q No.10: Unit strength of a material is called:
a) Stress b) Force c) Power d) Strain

Q No.11: A gradually applied load resulting in equilibrium over a short distance is called:
a) Impact load b) Static load c) Repeated load d) Sustained load.

Q No.12: The graphical interpretation of equations for finding the principal stresses and the maximum shear stress at a point in a stressed member is called:
a) Single stroke cycle b) Four stroke cycle c) Mohr’s circle d) All of these.

Q No.13: Total change in the dimension of a body is called:
a) Stress b) Strain c) Deformation d) Shearing strain.

Q No.14: Measurement of the intensity of deformation is called:
a) Stress b) Strain c) Deformation d) Breakage

Q No.15: The load that acts over a considerable length is called:
a) Concentrated load b) Distributed load c) Variable load d) Gradually increasing load.

Q No.16: There are ______ types of conditions of equilibrium:
a) One b) Four c) Three d) Two

Answers: 1:a 2:c 3:a 4:c 5:b 6:c 7:b 8:c 9:b 10:a 11:b 12:c 13:b 14:b 15:b 16:d

Source of the above data: Basics of Agriculture Book by Muhammad Ramzan Rafique